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veritas
Junior Member
uSA
23 Posts |
 Posted - 03 Jun 2006 : 16:17:41
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Greetings,
I am studying the "United States" and what that term means. I have a copy of Black's Law Dictionary Fifth and Seventh Editions. In the 5th the "United States" is defined but not the "United States of America" but in the 7th(which has a red cover by the way, not sure what that means) the term "United States" is NOT defined but the "United States of America" IS??
Does anybody have any insight into this?
Thanks in advance.
Peter
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Edited by - veritas on 04 Jun 2006 11:35:56 |
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Lewish
Advanced Member
uSA
496 Posts |
Posted - 13 Jun 2006 : 11:35:27
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Peter,
Look up the definition of "UNITED STATES" in the United States Code at Title 28 Section 3002 Paragraph 15.
Then you will know everything that needs to be known about the UNITED STATES.
Peace,
Lewis |
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Jay Scott
Advanced Member
uSA
181 Posts |
Posted - 13 Jun 2006 : 18:51:30
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quote:
Originally posted by Lewish
Look up the definition of "UNITED STATES" in the United States Code at Title 28 Section 3002 Paragraph 15.
Which I found here:
http://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/28/3002.html
...in pertinent part:
As used in this chapter [Federal Debt Collection Procedure]:
...
(15) “United States” means—
(A) a Federal corporation;
(B) an agency, department, commission, board, or other entity of the United States; or
(C) an instrumentality of the United States.
Jay
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veritas
Junior Member
uSA
23 Posts |
Posted - 15 Jun 2006 : 10:19:21
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Thank you for your replies.
OK … I see that in the code but I also read above it and I assume that this statement boxes in the definition of the term. Is this true? How does this definition spread throughout the code?
<usc snippet>
As used in this chapter:
</usc snippet>
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Lewish
Advanced Member
uSA
496 Posts |
Posted - 15 Jun 2006 : 12:22:14
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Unless it is specifically defined elsewhere, and it sometimes is, this is the definition that applies. You will find it repeated in part in other places.
Since all "crimes" are listed under either Title 28 or Title 18, then all crimes are commited against the corporation defined in Title 28. All crimes are commercial in nature. So stated in Title 28.
Lewis |
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veritas
Junior Member
uSA
23 Posts |
Posted - 16 Jun 2006 : 21:28:55
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To follow is the preamble of The Constitution of the United States of America.
We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.
Who did what?
The “We the People…”
What People?
“of the United States”
So, the “United States” could not have been established by the “Constitution” because it obviously was already around.
What is the United States then?
It is the States United. Delaware, Pennsylvania, New Jersey, Georgia, Connecticut, Massachusetts, and others…
What did they do?
“do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America.”
What did they establish?
the United States of America
Black’s Law Dictionary Eighth Edition p.1571
A federal republic formed after the War of Independence and made up of 48 conterminous states, plus the state of Alaska and the District of Columbia in North America, plus the state of Hawaii in the Pacific.
Thoughts?
Peter |
Edited by - veritas on 16 Jun 2006 21:30:12 |
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Lewish
Advanced Member
uSA
496 Posts |
Posted - 14 Apr 2007 : 21:38:58
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Greetings veritas,
Your confusion about the United States is the result of a carefully orchestrated fraud against the people.
In all the codes, statutes, rules and regulations it is always written as "United States". If they were to be truthful and honest it would be written "UNITED STATES" because in all cases they are in fact referring to the corporation. But, they don't want you to easily see that.
The United States referred to in the Constitution went to sleep in 1861 and was replaced by a British corporation in 1867, which is operated by the Exchequor of Britian.
We ( a fellow federal prisioner ) sent a copy of our complaint about the operation of their private businesses, known to the public as UNITED STATES DISTRICT COURTS, to the exchequor and got a reply that he would look into the problem. Hmmmm, still waiting on the results.
Also remember, that what is published in Black's Law Dictionary is also controlled by this same entity, the Exchequor of Britian, and will be put forth in such a manner as to properly confuse the public and obscure the truth.
If you want to see a federal court case get dropped in a hurry, just sue West Law, the publisher, for incorrect information. Happened here in Western Washington about 3 years ago.
Peace,
Lewis
A Man on the Land on Washington as a Citizen thereon. |
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Greg
Advanced Member
uSA
76 Posts |
Posted - 15 Apr 2007 : 12:10:58
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Greetings and blessing group, Lewis,
wikipedia;
"The Exchequer was (and in some cases still is) a part of the governments of England (latterly to include Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland) that was responsible for the management and collection of revenues."
So the FR has claim to everything generated other than judicial and judicial revenues are generated for the crown then?
Thanks for the clarification.
God's Peace, Mercy, and Blessings upon his ecclesia,
a humble servant,
Greg. |
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Greg
Advanced Member
uSA
76 Posts |
Posted - 15 Apr 2007 : 12:13:42
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Opps, forgot to add this;
united States of America refers to the land and contitnent, the rest are all corporational.
God Bless. |
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Lewish
Advanced Member
uSA
496 Posts |
Posted - 15 Apr 2007 : 14:41:31
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Greetings Greg,
In reality, the Exchequer works for the Vatican. Remember, the Vatican is the operator of Babylon the BEAST.
United States of America was and still is a Republic of States joined for the common good. They want you to forget that part.
Blessings.
Lewis
A Man on the Land on Washington as a Citizen thereon. |
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Greg
Advanced Member
uSA
76 Posts |
Posted - 18 Nov 2007 : 10:56:47
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Greetings and Blessing group.
Wasn't sure where to place this, but this seems a fitting enough thread.
Since having begun studying the topics of a STATE being a corporational entity as well as JOHN DOE being a fiction instead of a man, I have been espousing these truths to anyone who would listen. Local forums, e-mail lists, church members, friends, waitresses, felloiw inmates (was on a learning curve), police,...anyone.
I intitially was under the impression they had allowed this information out as a means to begin lulling the general masses into an upheaval that at some point they would squelch thereby reigning dejure through conquest (as they can only move from de facto (which they are) to de jure through either consent or conquest...although I often wonder if our long held silence doesn't equal consent?)
At any rate, I have noticed something this year in our Lord Two thousand and seven.
In the upper income areas they have begun replacing the signs for when you enter the "CORPORATIONAL LIMITS" of a particular city/CITY.
Here on the land known as Ohio, when traversing down the commonway, on the way side you will notice these little green signs that say for example "ENTERING COLUMBUS CORPORATIONAL LIMITS", or "LEAVING COLUMBUS CORPORATIONAL LIMITS".
They are being replaced with proper spelling signs "Entering Columbus Corporational limits".
and just today I recieved an electric bill that was addressed in the proper upper lower case. That being so even though my utlities are in a companies name as I don't have a S.S. # so I had to form a vessel in commerce for such things.(FYI there are three STATES I know of that allow a companies shares to be held through bearer bonds which means for the holders/controllers of the company there is no qualifying your status for the same...ie U.S. citizen).
So I was curious;
Is anyone else experiencing the same phenomenon else where?
and,
What do you think this is an indication of?
In Christ,
Greg. |
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legal definition of United States
