An Abortion Question For You

Picture this: A woman is pregnant and her baby is viable, but she no longer wants to keep him/her for a myriad of reasons -- in other words, she wants her baby dead. She arrives at her decision with the same reasons she would give to an abortionist -- pick one out. Because it makes her nervous, or she has a good job opportunity, or she found out her unborn baby has a defect, or a hundred other physical or emotional reasons that a person or doctor can come up with.

So, she stabs her baby through her abdomen -- the blade pierces the baby's skull at the base of the brain and the baby dies, but she lives. Or, we can go another route. Let's say she asks her boyfriend to do it, or she pays someone to kill her baby by stabbing her abdomen. In each case the baby is stabbed at the base of the brain. Whatever the case, she lives, but the baby dies.

If she kills her baby, she can be prosecuted for murder. If her boyfriend kills her baby, even with her PERMISSION, he will be prosecuted for murder and she would be an accomplice to murder. If she pays someone to kill her baby, that person will be prosecuted for murder, even though the mother gave her PERMISSION and she will be prosecuted as an accomplice to murder.

Now, here's my problem: If the mother gives her permission and pays a doctor to kill her viable baby by a stab at the base of the baby's brain, the doctor CANNOT be prosecuted for murder. Now, someone out there in the vast reaches of the web, please tell me, what in the world is the difference between the prior cases and the one involving the doctor. I would like a legal reason that makes the doctor's murder acceptable and the others prosecutable. All of these cases are exactly the same -- reasons for the killing were the same -- permission was given. The only difference was the position of the baby, when killed. When stabbed through the abdomen, the baby was 100% in her uterus, but when the doctor did the killing the baby was 75% born, which makes it even worse. Everyone would be prosecuted for murder, but NOT the doctor.

Remember, I'm not talking about a case where the mother is assaulted, but a case where she gives her PERMISSION, because, as in an abortion, she wants her baby dead. The only reason possible is that the doctor went to medical school and has a license to kill. What other answer could there possibly be?